iwfal
I don't understand your post - do you mean that it is likely the FDA set them a lower bar at the end-of-trial, in exchange for a higher bar at the interims ? A sort of a quid-pro-quo ?
It doesn;t sound too scientific to me ....
Then again, why both set such low p-values at all ? Maybe on this statement though, I err, the values are nevertheless achievable if the benefit is very clear.
"....on the biotech battle-field, you need some élan...."