Thats a great question gabby. Let me ask it another way. If gtel is the same company at .26 then why does a reverse split make it more attractive at 4.00 to institutional investors? I know all about the "only able to invest in stocks at a certain price" stuff but there has to be something else to it. In this day it seems companies can manipulate their fundys (Enron, etc) such that a share price doesn't mean it is a perception of the real value. Anyone know why they have this requirement?
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