Tuesday, April 19, 2011 9:23:49 PM
The dating on the 2nd amendment (January 28 2011) got me confused cuz I think I had assumed the original 1.8 mill shares and the payment associated with it had been done and settled.
My confusion came from their 2nd amendment and the dates on it (i.e. why mention the 1.8 mill shares and money owed to be due by March 31 2011 if it had already been settled?).
http://www.sec.gov/Archives/edgar/data/722572/000101968711000536/franklin_10q-ex1003.htm
Like you say (thanx for that legwork BTW) they already repurchased/settled the 1.8 mill on 09/21/2010 per the PR.
Then how come they filed the 2nd amendemnt to the SEC is my question.
This part is my confusion:
"a) US$1,873,064.70 (for the repurchase of 1,803,684 shares) to be paid by March 31, 2011."
Maybe the $1.8+ mill had not yet been settled/paid between the parties even though maybe the shares had been transferred?
That would account for the reduced shares (assuming they had been transferred last year) AND the 2nd amended filing indicating the US$1,873,064.70 (assuming it still hadn't been paid on January 28 2011 per the SEC filing) still to be paid by March 31 2011 in the above.
Again though that would make me wonder how come C-Mo had not yet been paid for the shares assuming the shares had been transferred.
Probably much ado about nothing but it is still cloudy to me why the US$1,873,064.70 amount due would be labeled as being due by March 31 2011 if the shares had been transferred back in 2010 (would have thought the 2 events would happen at same time but who knows).
As mentioned, maybe they were just retroactively fixing the original text and made it as an amendement after the fact (possibly). Dunno.
Thanx for ther clarity.
All IMO only. Good luck.
I don't mind stealing bread from the mouths of decadence... But I can't feed on the powerless when my cup's already overfilled.
-Temple of the Dog
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