Why are the progression reduction percentages in the 2 paragraphs so close yet the median PFS percentage difference is so vast? What is it that I am not grasping?
I think the answer is that the percent reduction in risk of progression is based on the entire KM curve while the comparison of the medians looks at only one point, the median of the two curves. It all depends on the shape of the KM curves.
Register for free to join our community of investors and share your ideas. You will also get access to streaming quotes, interactive charts, trades, portfolio, live options flow and more tools.