Tuesday, February 15, 2011 11:45:42 AM
If the current common stock base price is .001.
And the new base price is .01.
Doesn't that mean that the price will remain the same but you will have 3 times as many shares?
I do not see how the price will drop if the new base common price is .01 for each share. Am I looking at this incorrectly?
I have looked at some other stocks, and when they do a reverse or forward split the common stock price remained the same, at .001.
In this case it is going higher from .001 to .01 does that not change the entire result of what normally happens?
I am sorry just confused about how this works. Thank you.
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