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Thursday, January 20, 2011 2:13:34 PM
I am not in "finance" so I have difficulty in fully understanding when you say
"...one hedge fund manager that participated in the PP of shelf securities has removed all downside risk..."
What exactly does that mean? How do they put a downside risk in the first place (I guess like the other hedge fund still has). What actions does a company do to remove downside risk?
Sorry if it's a very simple question, I just want to make sure that I do not misinterpret what you are saying.
Thank you
Brez
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