e.Digital Corporation (fka EDIG)

[chwdrhed]

The reverse split situation could explain the reduction in the number of shares but it would not address the reduction in percent of ownership.

I'm sure there must be a reasonable explanation for this. It's just too obvious to be fraud, isn't it? So how does 12 percent ownership in a company evaporate? Certainly someone on this board remembers what actually took place and can shed some light. I haven't read the 10Ks myself that far back. Is that what I have to do? Is it some obvious thing that's being omitted by the "death to e.Digital" squad?

Somebody throw me a bone here.