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Re: go seek post# 546

Sunday, 10/31/2010 5:10:19 PM

Sunday, October 31, 2010 5:10:19 PM

Post# of 20689
Greetings to all and here's hoping for a very fine day tomorrow. My question is that if this quarters earning are in the .60 to .70 range and if a PE of 15 to 20 were applied to an annualized income (until costs to NVS are paid back) one can calculate a "number" for the short term value of the stock based on income (exclusive of copaxone etc.) My question is would that number apply if the "short" holdings were 0? And what does it mean that there are so many "shorts" (eight million) now. Is there a way to sort of quantify the additive effect in a rough approximation of what the effect on price is when a lot of shorts that are called to cover is? I realize its a rambling question but I am just trying to get at what it really means when there are shorts compared to an idealized situation where there aren't any. I ask because I have some Nov call options and want some guidance as to how to try to get at what a short term peak might look like. Thanks is advance. bp