Wallstarb,
Just trying to get how you calculate that Teva and Amph are right behind when their applications are two years older than MNTA's, and their drugs, from all the evidence, have not characterized the drug, nor replicated the drug, to near the degree that MNTA has.
I am not saying that the FDA might not approve their applications despite this. Good enough might be good enough.
But I've laid out my rationale. Do you have rationale for your conclusion, or is it just a conclusion. If so, I'd like to hear it.
Thanks.
Tinker