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Re: SmoothTrader61 post# 6476

Friday, 05/07/2010 6:59:16 PM

Friday, May 07, 2010 6:59:16 PM

Post# of 18340
Good theory, but he is an insider because he owns more then 5% of the company: therefore, he must file a form 144 accompanied by a form 4 on the sale. I've looked back to 2001 and can find no form 144 or Form 4's in all those years. Now he must have filed recently to effect a sale now or from the time we hit the highs in order to negatively affect the price. It make zero sense for him to be selling. If he is hedging, some kind shorting, he would also have to file.

http://www.otcmarkets.com/pink/quote/quote.jsp?symbol=hdvy