Thursday, December 23, 2004 12:36:17 PM
Not if you do not know what the proceeds of the additional shares were used for.
Example: When there were 2,000,000 shares assume we effectively had morgaged or borrowed against our presumed ownership of Veltex Mills. Now assuming there are effectively 6,000,000 and Matin got (considering recent market) $ 3.00 value/share) and used it to buy back the debt, thereby getting back the ownership of Veltex Mills (generating the claimed revenues:
At 2,000,000 shares we were owning !/ 2,000,000th of close to nothing.
At 6,000,000 shares we now would owned 1/6,000,000 of something generating a $7,000,000 profit in 2004.
What is better.
This being said everything you said (same for what I say by the way) is pure speculation.
The only thing we KNOW is that: "Matin say Veltex generates a profit of $7,000,000 per year".
Considering his credibility, the fact is we know nothing and your 6,000,000 shares are as meaningless as the 2,000,000 alluded to by Matin in his PR's.
Patiently,
Roger
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