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Re: stoploss73 post# 7314

Friday, 03/19/2010 12:19:56 PM

Friday, March 19, 2010 12:19:56 PM

Post# of 15766
I'm very confused - the preferrds were purchased last year right?
That was the financing from 2009...
So those notes are held by someone - if they are converted, those shares are in that persons hand right?

If that's correct, I don't understand why they would do that now and not collect the dividends on the preferrds.

If I'm not reading this correct and these shares don't exist - what is this?

-DB