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Re: Number1Son post# 11941

Thursday, 03/18/2010 4:33:46 PM

Thursday, March 18, 2010 4:33:46 PM

Post# of 35503
Hmm...good question. I think it was worded the only way you could word it. Buyout approved, shareholder votes not needed, agreed to outstanding shares of 0.01. If they mentioned the dilution there is no way you could spin it to sound right.

A reverse split wouldn't exactly help the execs either though if their shares are going to be worth 0.01. Here's my conservative estimate based on the scenario we presented. Again, this is all if this scenario is correct, and the numbers should provide some insight.

Dilution to 14 billion shares. If every share is worth 0.01, that's $140 million. But, let's say one third of the shares are owned by the execs and two thirds are on open market and we just average it at 0.002 for discussion. Let's say the buyer successfully grabs one third of those at 0.002 and shareholders own the other third.

Execs: 4.67 billion shares x 0.01 = $46,700,000
Buyer: 4.67 billion shares x 0.002 = $9,340,000
Shareholders: 4.67 billion shares x 0.01 = $46,700,000

Total cost to buyer: $102,740,000

Are these numbers realistic? Is that purchase number realistic for the machinery, contracts, and patents?

It's also possible that we don't have anything close to 4.67 billion shares as shareholders. The buyer might already own 6, 7, or 8 billion. Who knows. And the buyer may have purchased that well below 0.002 since that spike only came recently. The scenarios can range from a purchase price of $50 million to $140 million.

Thoughts?