probably you should explain this: This is because I believe that the FINRA calls a sale without a buy in the open market a short, when that could also be a company dumping shares(Dilution). I could be wrong, shoot me down if I am. The above definition appears to be an assumption by the poster. What is a sale without a buy in the open.....it is not a sale!!! Is that confusing...yes it is!! Perhaps you can explain it as brought it up here!