Here's a thought...should a company that has Never, and I repeat, NEVER posted one period of revenues or profits there from, gone through several name changes and business focuses, recapitalized numerous times with the most recent share structure modification being a 1 for 2000 reverse split effectuated presumably to reduce the number of outstanding shares and yet even in the wake of said RS now has over 30 billion outstanding...I lost my train of thought.
Oh yeah, should the company I described above have even one share outstanding let alone 30 billion or so? And what is equally puzzling is that there could be any rational debate that dilution is in fact occurring. The debate should center around not that there is any dilution occurring, but in fact just how bad is it!