Thursday, October 21, 2004 12:43:14 AM
I claim that since the 51.7% of the equity consists of 68% of one class of shares, that if the voting rights are different among the classes of shares then the 51.7% may not convey 'control' of the company.
You respond by saying first that all the shares carry the same weight, and then contradict yourself by saying that "ONLY" class B shareholders can vote on the business plan. So what categories can "only" class A shares vote on? common?
So how are the shares equal in their voting power?
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