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Thursday, January 11, 2001 11:48:17 PM
I thought in order to prevail in a suit, you have to show damages. Wouldn't that mean that those of us that didn't succomb to Anthony's BS and sell at a loss would (hopefully) have no damages by the time this came to trial if the stock went up higher than it was when Anthony started this crap. If this is the case, then it seems to me that only those who sold should join the suit. Is there any advantage for those stockholders who didn't sell to join the suit? Also, what type of outcome from this suit would provide $$ to the stockholders? And are PUNITIVE DAMAGES likely to be awarded? Have you heard anything about any CRIMINAL CHARGES being brought against Anthony? TIA, GOLFNUT
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