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Wednesday, 02/11/2009 2:46:33 PM

Wednesday, February 11, 2009 2:46:33 PM

Post# of 11073
I have a question or series of questions. RBRM was one company. That company developed/manufactured/sold Rebuilder products according to their publications/website/company description in pinksheets/financials. We, the public, bought stocks for that company. Then, the CEO decides to split the company into development/manufacturing and sales/distribution which are two different companies. Our shares are now tied to the sales and distribution piece (American Med Tech). Can he do that? So, at any time, the sales and distribution piece can go under and he (the CEO) still has his company (development/manufacturing) and we lost our shares.
Can he do that? I didn't buy shares to a sales and distribution company. I should still own stake in the whole company.

That's like me making a company called Riley enterprises. Then get a bunch of people to buy into it with their money. Then I make another company called Riley2 enterprises and transfer all the investors and shares to that company....although the company does nothing. Then later I close the Riley2 company and keep the Riley company all to myself. This way, I have used other peoples money to fund MY company with the illusion that they would make money off of it. If that's the case, then it's fraud.

Did I miss something or is that pretty must the gist of what seems to be going on here?