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wadirum1

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wadirum1

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Friday, 01/09/2009 12:05:39 AM

Friday, January 09, 2009 12:05:39 AM

Post# of 346917
Anyone have any thoughts why the PR said that they are retiring the shares without any mention of the price paid? Could they just retire them without paying?

And if they did pay RME back for the shares, wouldn't they be limited by the market price for what they could pay to RME? Like, if the price had gone down to $0.01, could they be paying RME $0.02?

This is going to make one hell of a story. I seem to remember Bill Young saying that somebody has been writing a book on this from an inside perspective. That's going to be quite a read!
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