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Monday, 10/13/2008 5:11:21 PM

Monday, October 13, 2008 5:11:21 PM

Post# of 143047
Anybdoy else find this statement a little peculiar?

From the RMDM PR dated Oct. 8th

*Mr. Winters is a semi retired executive who sits on many small and mid cap company's board of directors, and or as a Corporate Secretary acting in a capacity of an advisor. Mr. Winters was selected by the secured creditor to advise and assist in the interim management in the process. Mr. Winters receives compensation of $1.00 per year plus stock for services rendered. Mr. Winters is a philanthropist. He has never sold any stock in the companies he acts as a Secretary or an advisor and instead donates 100% these stock proceeds to charity.

You have to sell a stock in order for there to be "proceeds". If he has never sold any stock there are no proceeds. So how could he donate 100% of proceeds from stock he has never sold?

Seems like a really strange statement to me.