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Re: None

Wednesday, 02/13/2008 11:56:08 PM

Wednesday, February 13, 2008 11:56:08 PM

Post# of 245793
Why does Tom need to own 80% of the o/s in preferred shares?

IMO it gives him the opportunity for future acquisitions using preferred shares and still maintaining more than 50% ownership of the o/s.

So many people are saying that the dilution is killing us. Who cares if the o/s increases a few hundred million shares or more if he is doubling or tripling the value of the holdings.

The .001 Legacy conversions were all documented in the filings but most of us missed them. Because they were there, how can anyone say he was hiding them?