Thursday, December 27, 2007 11:05:57 AM
Any stock purchases made during the period when this intangable asset was included in the balance sheets would now seem to have been made on an overinflated assumption of value.
An intelligent investor would have determined fair value without including the goodwill amount.
Who is responsible for this misinterpetation of value?
What type of accounting was used to access a value to these intangable assets.
What factors have changed ( I can only assume that these intangable assets have not provided the revenues that were originally associated to them )
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