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Thursday, October 11, 2007 1:22:17 PM
Another good question [at least to my thinking] and part of the reason I dont think a sale of shares allowed by the brokerage house is really a short sale] is,......
If it IS a short sale....and prices plummet....
why would u not get the TRUE benefit of it being a short sale?
I mean,...if selling,...really is categorized as a short sale...and the pps plummets to 1 penny within 3 days....thats alotta $$$$....if it really is a 'short sale'.
If the brokerage house argument is that your shares arent good enough to really sell until you have them,..and any sale is a 'short sale'....than why should the existence of your shares in unconverted form transform your sale into anything less than a TRUE short sale???
It doesnt seem right that the brokerage house can have it both ways.
But thats just my logic.
I do wonder what the reg's say on all these issues.
Best,
GJ
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