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Re: mrdutch post# 86328

Tuesday, 10/09/2007 3:26:27 PM

Tuesday, October 09, 2007 3:26:27 PM

Post# of 162847
EXCELLENT question, DUTCH...

"hey ineedmore, interesting to read your calculations, but it was stated in previous PR's that the loan to Aero would be used by Aero to finance the new product line and product roll-out, how could Aero do that with FCCN shares??"

The formula used to convert GGI debt to shares was very favorable to GGI, enabling them to acquire shares well below market value and then sell them at market highs. Assume the debt to conversion ratio was the same or better for AERO.

GGI was only owed just over $220,000 while the AERO loan was valued at 1.9 million dollars. If AERO got shares at sub penny, they could sell some of those shares at some of the recent highs for operating costs while retaining a great portion of them for ownership.

I did say "approximately" as to what we will own vs what AERO will own, but I really don't think it's all that important since the major revelation is that the O/S will be the same and has not changed. We own today what we own and without dilution, it doesn't really matter as far as PPS is concerned.

THAT IS THE MAJOR REVELATION. The O/S hasn't changed and it's the O/S that determines PPS, NOT the percent we own of FCCN.

If AERO got 225 million shares from escrow, and who knows, maybe they got more, but being conservative, imagine they got 225,000,000 shares from escrow at .008

225,000,000 x .008 = $1.8 million

Now, if they sold 75 million shares to the public at .026 average over the last month that would give them 1.9 million dollars and they would still hold 150,000,000 shares

75,000,000 x .026 = $1,950,000




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