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Monday, September 10, 2007 2:23:26 PM
If you took 35 people in this condition and gave them a placebo, what would expected remission rate be? Would it reliably be 0%?
I don't want to come off as panning these results--I honestly just don't know how to interpret them. I saw the quote about confirming single-agent activity before seeing the numbers, and was expecting more than that.
Any insights would be appreciated.
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