How could regulators allow this? That's the part I don't understand. A 10,000 to 1 r/s in Feb. 2007 followed by a 1:100 r/s 7 months later. The accumulative effect is the same as a 1:1,000,000 r/a (for every million shares held before the Feb. r/s you now hold 1 share--how can that be considered good for investors?). Something is very wrong here.
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