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Re: spanishbid post# 27139

Friday, 06/29/2007 11:33:36 AM

Friday, June 29, 2007 11:33:36 AM

Post# of 44006
REVISED: spanishbid, exactly. he doesn't want those preferreds split. there's a stipulation (so jc says) that it would take 8+yrs to fully convert (going gang busters). I fail to see how this is a "poison pill" unless the unconverted preferreds give 30% ownership once the r/s p/jc goes through immediately. someone want to help out with this question?

also, does the mere whiff of a hostile takeover grant him special rights to immediately convert outstanding preferred's should the above not give him immediate 30% owenrship?

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