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Re: itrade4profit2 post# 247278

Thursday, 05/24/2007 12:21:25 AM

Thursday, May 24, 2007 12:21:25 AM

Post# of 286282
I'm guessing you also need to learn more about hedge funding and toxic funding as your math does not add up. The terms of the agreement do not guarantee anything at this price range. I have explained this before, but I'll let you figure it out. Read the 10K. The terms of the convertible debenture are spelled out quite well. The converted share price 82% of (a)the volume weighted average price on the day prior to the conversion or (b) the volume weighted average price of the lowest 3 trading days in a 20 day period prior to conversion. So, explain to the board how GGI will make a profit selling at 0.0004 when today's volume weighted average price is closer to 0.0006 and the lowest 3 trading days had low volume at 0.0004, which means the average price is closer to 0.0005. And lets say the average price is low enough so they can make a little money at 0.0004, how will they make money at 0.0003 or 0.0002 when the spread keeps getting larger and larger? Please enlighten us. Please explain to us why GGI would be happy selling shares down to 0.0001 when the average price is more than 18% above the bid.

If you are going to make such bold statements, it would be wise of you to provide the numbers to go with it. Otherwise you are simply bashing and spreading lies.