I'm not pretending to miss the point.
It's an idiotic point.
If Offor has controlling interest as I believe, of course, he could do lots of things.
But from an accounting perspective, my point was that ERHC could not issue any convertible debt when the shares outstanding almost equals the shares authorized UNLESS they do a reverse split.
In almost a decade since the last reverse split, the company has not done one, despite that YOU falsely predicted that they would.
Why would they? Especially if Offor already took advantage of the cheap prices after the last reverse split to buy shares behind a gag order? (Which is an assumption on my part) No need to do another one. And so long as he was following a judge's order in the form of a gag, then it's legal because the gag takes primacy over the SEC, as we know by the tenth amendment of the U.S. Constitution (but I am not a lawyer)
Or how about you answer THIS question: why on earth would Offor want another reverse split to buy convertible debt if he already owns the company?
Clearly, he wouldn't and that's a way to deduce that he already does own all the shares he wants to own.. the fact that they didn't do another reverse split tells you that Offor doesn't want one or need one.
More in line with what Offor would want as a shareholder is a dividend that pays him while short sellers pay a dividend to our shorted shares ownership.
And you can't hide a reverse split. Everyone would see their share count change if they attempted one. So don't give me some nonsense about them secretly doing one.
And they can't secretly issue convertible debt when the shares outstanding equals the shares authorized, either.
Krombacher
