Tuesday, April 23, 2024 11:57:31 AM
So let's get this straight.
Offor wants control so he
Step 1: owns a controlling interest in the company
So that step 2: he can force a reverse split so the company can issue convertible debt
So that step 3: he can use the convertible debt to own a controlling interest in the company?!?!?
Why would he do steps 2 and 3, if step 1 already gets him control of the company???
Wouldn't he be better off using his control to issue himself a dividend when the company is able?
Then, shorts would pay the same dividend on all the shorted shares as well.
Offor would kill two birds with one stone. The company would pay his dividend AND the shorts would pay our dividend.
Krombacher
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