Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[DaJester]

"...Treasury had preferred equity in a company and chose to write it off for nothing in return"

As I tried to explain already, the reason is not "for nothing." It would be to correct an action that the courts have recognized as a breach of good faith and fair dealing. Should a breach of contract result in continued enforcement of that contract? To simply pay the judgement amount and not change their behavior risks being called out for new damages (much easier the second time around IMO).

But if you want to compare this unprecedented situation to anything else when it suits you and then claim I can't compare it to anything because there are no examples of this specific situation happening ever, just shows your hypocrisy.