Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[M I A]

How in rop case or similar, where missing out on dividends is an issue, could they get any actual award of money AND the court, or whoever, not recognizing sp paid?

If the story as is, FOR NOW, is gov wasn't paid back or compensated. Principal + int.

Also we are massively undercap because sp/lp debt on books.

So we never paid back debt and are undercap.

Why would plaintiffs get an award of monetary damages IF that story stands of never paid & undercap?

I believe they have been paid and if money was returned, especially all of it, then jr's did miss and continue to miss value and commons as well.

Or maybe if some money was returned and debt was removed then they might be at a specific buffer then could start paying partial dividends. But how does that story stand and plaintiffs win?

Based on gov story, no one has missed dividends.
At best, maybe someone help me out, with $27billion returned and debt off books because nws is ruled crap. Crap, I believe is a legal term. We could then see a partial divi paid to jr because at $112B, I think, might be at a buffer allowing partial div paid???

I don't know. That's why I am asking.

Thanks for replies.

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JMO