Tuesday, February 06, 2007 1:58:07 PM
There is always some subjectivity, but attempting to quantify outcomes can keep expectations confined at least a little.
Here is a really simple approach. It attempts to estimate the value at the end of a specific period of time as by combining estimates for the impact of the outcome of specific events.
Value(@end of period) =(weight* sumevent( Likelihood * Estimated Change in Share Price))/ sumevent(weight)
So, for 2007 one such estimate might be:
Event Likelihood Est.Change in SP Weight Expected
General Market 1
Market Up >10% 30% 0.15 0.05
Market Down >10% 70% -0.15 -0.11
General Market -0.06
CX717 3
CX717 Dropped 30% -0.30 -0.09
CX717 AD only 30% 0.30 0.09
CX717 AD &ADHD 30% 2.50 0.75
CX717 0.75
BP Deal 2
BP ND Deal <$5M 60% 0.50 0.30
BP ND Deal $5-10M 30% 1.00 0.30
BP ND Deal >$10M 10% 2.00 0.20
BP Deal 0.80
Financing 3
no more shares 20% 0.00 0.00
<5M more shares 30% -0.25 -0.08
5-10M more shares 30% -0.40 -0.12
>10M more shares 20% -0.50 -0.10
Financing -0.30
Estimated Change in Value @ End 2007 0.32
So, in this case, the estimate of the most probable change in share price over the course of the year is $0.32, for a year end share price of about $1.50. But, note the estimate on the extremes - a change of -$0.95 and +$4.65 for resulting year end share prices of $0.20 - $5.80!
This is pretty crude, and I don’t expect anyone to take it too seriously. I’m just trying to get a more analytical discussion started on how to value this stock based on the likelihood of the outcome of expected events, which is the only way I think these kinds of stocks can be valued.
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