Does anyone have a good model of the number of treatments, revenue per, and subsequent valuation of the company taking in to account current shares outstanding and 75mil ATM share offering?
I saw one on stocktwits about a month back that looked good, and I will probably use as a base. Is there anything grossly wrong with this poster's logic?
I am looking to get my investment strategy tightened up here in the face of our catalysts, such that I wont be swayed by price fluctuation (to the upside). I've already held through our deep trough.
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