Can anyone explain in a detailed way exactly how the forward split is supposed to be beneficial? I don't really understand. If the current price is say .0001 (per CEO "it could not be trading at a lower level"), and the stock splits, there would be twice as many shares, of course. Is part of the rational that those shares would then be sellable at .0001 for twice the profit, since holders have twice as many shares? I do believe it is possible for market makers to trade the stock at .00005, though regular investors cannot, I have seen PAIM do this in the distant past, so I believe a lower trade is possible. Would not the new shares really be valued at .0005, and essentially be unsellable? Also, in what way would this supposedly affect "naked shorts" if that is indeed the design. If we assume it is correct that there is a large naked short position, how would this cause a need to cover? Thanks.