Tuesday, October 12, 2021 7:29:27 AM
Hello-
I am curious how the following conversion terms would be interpreted in the below example:
The Conversion Price shall be equal to 50% of the lowest share price during the 10-previous trading day period prior to conversion or $0.005 per share at the holder’s discretion.
Does this mean the holder would choose the price per share on maturity date? What would this look like if the stock was at .10 cents at maturity? Why would you word it 50% of lowest share price or .005? Is .005 price noted just in case the price goes to .001?
Any help in understanding is appreciated
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