You guys are right. I apologize, bad example. BAD MATH. If you bought 50,000 shares of Quantum, over time, averaging out to .10 per share, that is $5000.00 and you got a reverse split of 50 to 1 at .02 per share, 1000 shares at $1.00 per share. That means you have to make up the loss of $4,000.00 with only 1000 shares. SOMEBODY! Is that correct? So does it have to go to $5.00 a share to be even in this example? Anybody? This RS amount is not out of the realm of reality. I really mean it, correct me if I am wrong.