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Re: rynlrt post# 38258

Monday, 08/09/2021 10:12:39 PM

Monday, August 09, 2021 10:12:39 PM

Post# of 48249
Not a "loophole." I have been on the losing end more than once because of thinking that "all dilutive shares have been issued" (or "all dilutive debentures have been satisfied") means "there is no more dilution." Can you SEE the difference?
The first statement means the company is no longer diluting.
The second statement means that the shares that WERE diluted, in the past, prior to said statement, still may be diluted into the O/S by those who received the dilutive shares IN THE PAST.

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