Fannie Mae (FNMA)

[chessmaster315]

None of this makes sense:


1. Let's start with a defination of Cet1 Capital. It has nothing to do with what you posted.
Instead, this is Cet1 capital:

https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/knowledge/finance/common-equity-tier-1-cet1/#:~:text=Common%20Equity%20Tier%201%20(CET1)%20capital%20includes%20the%20core%20capital,ability%20to%20withstand%20financial%20distress.

In short:

Summary
Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital includes the core capital that a bank holds in its capital structure.
CET1 ratio compares a bank’s capital against its risk-weighted assets to determine its ability to withstand financial distress.
The core capital of a bank includes equity capital and disclosed reserves such as retained earnings.

2. The overpayment is disputed. When you "take" money that does not belong to you and refuse to return it for over a decade, interest is indicated. Remember, we were required to pay 10 percent.

3. Where do you get this? There is no "conversion to commons" on the table or at Scotus, so this has to be made up: PFA (plucked from air).

4. Because your first 3 statements are pretty much "PFA" (plucked from air), your conclusion, is also non sequitir.