Kraig Biocraft Laboratories Inc (KBLB)

[sojomy]

After a 100:1 RS the stock price would immediately be 100 times current price, or $16.25 at the current price of the stock. Why in the world would KBLB set an offering price at $4.25 if the stock price is $16.25?

The offering price of the secondary sale of shares is not correlated to the stock price. They may try to choose a r/s ratio to get the post-r/s price in the range of the offering price (currently a 25:1 to 37:1), but they actually could do a 100:1 r/s (which puts the post-r/s price at $16.50 currently) and still do an offering price of $4.25. They're trying to do a r/s & an stock sale at the same time, but the r/s ratio and the offering price are not tied together in any way. KBLB & Maxim will choose what those numbers are, nothing else decides it.

You also need to figure the value of the $10-23 million that is received for the dilution and what that adds to the market cap. So yes, your math is using incorrect assumptions.

Thank you, that I did not factor for. So yes, that should help lower the dilution percentage. But the post-r/s market cap with the accretive offering money raised (minus fees) would still be lower than the post-r/s market cap factoring dilution, right?