Sounds to me like the company converted the entire authorized shares and included them in the R/S. That's the only logical conclusion. Otherwise, why would they be concerned about the welfare of the shareholders that were in pre-Split? Seems like there is something bitter going on between GDVM and WHKA which resulted to the R/S IMO. Just my opinion, I could be wrong. They need to PR the O/S after R/S since it is public disclosure. if in millions, then they must have converted the A/S into O/S pre-split.
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