Tuesday, January 09, 2007 3:43:11 PM
I just met my averaged-down point, and that includes ALL shares for 6 years.
He did not offer an explanation of how many shares he bought at what price pre-split. Let's take a reasonable middle of the road example of someone buying 100,000 shares at an average price of 0.05 for a total pre-split investment of $5000. After the split he would have 5000 shares at a cost basis of $1.00 each.
Now let's say he bought 1,000,000 shares at an average price of 0.007 recently. That is a cost of $7000. His total cost is $12,000. He has 1,005,000 shares which at 0.0122 are now worth $12,261, and he had exceeded his break even point.
What is so unbelievable about that? If there was any data offered that I missed, please let me know.
Virgil
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