Friday, August 07, 2020 10:31:29 AM
The concentration issue in general has always confused me. My layman understanding of the term, which may be inappropriate, is simply the amount of one substance relative to another. Easy example: 1ml B with 9ml DMSO*** would be a 10% concentration.
What I don't understand is why it matters when comparing one drug to another....I'm sure there's a simple explanation but I don't know what it is.
If a 10% concentration of Drug A is as effective and safe as a 20% concentration of Drug B what are the issues that make one preferable to the other?
(there are definitely a few people here that can answer that)
That said, you're right about the use of....."at a concentration similar to"....when the specifics had to have been available.
"Was Remdesivir not tested in lung epithelial cell lines?"
Good question. I didn't look into the details of the results and probably wouldn't have understood them if I did, but the answer to your question is pretty clear:
"Date:
July 9, 2020
Source:
Vanderbilt University Medical Center
Summary:
A new study found that remdesivir potently inhibited SARS-CoV-2, the virus which causes COVID-19, in human lung cell cultures and that it improved lung function in mice infected with the virus. "
https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2020/07/200709172845.htm
It's obviously not as simple as "90% is better than 50%", even if some are satisfied with that.
***http://www.ipharminc.com/press-release/2020/7/20/innovation-pharmaceuticals-brilacidin-inhibits-novel-coronavirus-covid-19-by-almost-90-at-the-lowest-concentration-tested-to-date-in-a-human-lung-cell-line
“Bad men need nothing more to compass their ends, than that good men should look on and do nothing.”
John Stuart Mill....1867
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