Innovation Pharmaceuticals Inc (IPIX)

[loanranger]

Following up: I know that you can help me better understand what the Company is saying and that's the SOLE purpose of my blatantly uneducated questions. I find the lung cell trial data too confusing to even form a question about it that I haven't already tried to ask so I'm only talking about the TWO VERO cell presentations:

One trial tested 1)water versus 2)a solution of water and B at specific concentrations. The overview called it a "Pre-Treatment Assay".
The 5/19 PR said that that "reduced the viral titer (load) of SARS-CoV-2 by 75 percent after only 1 hour of preincubation prior to infection at a concentration of 10µM as compared to vehicle control".
Your language was easier to follow...."Pre-treatment before SARS introduction to VERO cells reduces viral load (compared with H20) by 75%"....but I'm still confused. This clarification was offered previously:
"The virus was in a liquid to which Brilacidin was added. It was then added to the VERO cells for incubation."
(incubation/preincubation isn't helping)

So in what they describe as the Pre-Treatment Assay the virus was in a liquid to which Brilacidin (in water) was added. That mixture was then added to the VERO cells. An hour later the amount of active virus had been reduced by 75% compared to a mixture to which water only had been added.
Correct?


Another trial is termed a "Post-Treatment Assay" and I think the titles are adding to my confusion. The "post" seems to refer to the introduction of the infection versus the treatment. Please bear with me.
This time the virus was NOT in the liquid to which B (this time in a DMSO solution) was added. That liquid was introduced to VERO cells which were THEN infected with the virus.
The 4/1 PR says "At 16 hours post-infection (16hpi), researchers observed a dose-dependent reduction in the SARS-CoV-2 infectious viral titers from the Brilacidin treated cells as compared to the vehicle-alone control, as shown below."
The PR and the Overview indicate "35-50% Reduction in Viral Load". The accompanying chart suggests that what I'm calling the active virus was not reduced by treatment with the DMSO solution alone after the same period.



I hope the above suggests SOME understanding of the two trials (and I apologize to those readers to whom it was all SOOOO obvious for wasting their time....use your Ignore feature).
If there are huge gaping holes in the above descriptions please let me know.


ps. Also appreciate this...
"One RBL and One PHRI" (although I think the recent GMU agreement adds an RBL, or does it?).

...and especially this:
"The above indicates that brilacidin does better when administered before the virus gets into cells, which means it probably acts mainly by attacking the viral envelope outside of cells (or somehow inhibiting viral entry)."