Innovation Pharmaceuticals Inc (IPIX)

[loanranger]

Please take a look at the following IPIX reporting and tell me if I'm understanding it correctly.

There's a chart in the April 1 press release that appears to show that a 10µM pretreatment of Brilacidin 2 hours prior to infection resulted in a 50-55% reduction in viral load 16 hours after infection.
http://www.ipharminc.com/press-release/2020/4/1/innovation-pharmaceuticals-receives-data-supporting-brilacidins-direct-inhibition-of-sars-cov-2-the-novel-coronavirus-responsible-for-covid-19

Here's what yesterday's PR says:
"WAKEFIELD, MA – May 19, 2020 (GLOBE NEWSWIRE) Innovation Pharmaceuticals (OTCQB:IPIX) (“the Company”), a clinical stage biopharmaceutical company, announced today that its anti-SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19) drug candidate, Brilacidin, in an in vitro experiment using VERO cells, reduced the viral titer (load) of SARS-CoV-2 by 75 percent after only 1 hour of preincubation prior to infection at a concentration of 10µM as compared to vehicle control."

As I understand that the reduction in viral load (of 75%) was measured at some unstated point in time (versus 16 hours in the first test) after the cells were infected. In this test the 10µM of Brilacidin was introduced ONE hour before the cells were infected versus TWO hours in the first test.

IF...I know it's a big IF...I have that right, then what did we learn?
Why was the point in time at which the reduction in viral load was measured left out of this release and what would it tell us if it was included, if anything?
What was the purpose of treating the cells an hour closer to the time of infection and without an answer to the previous question how can we tell if it's meaningful?