Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[EternalPatience]

Simple question


Even if dilution occurs, even if warrants are exercised, and blah blah blah as scared by preferred posters, the objective of IPO/SPO is to raise money. Why would they do an IPO or SpO at 5$ or 6$ when the purpose of SPO is to raise more money for capital reserves, rather say at 20$.. can somebody explain that to me? Please stay away from reverse split alone while explaining..