What I'm thinking is that in order to have a dividend, if it happens... dah dah dah Is to evaluate a reasonable scenario.
If the float was say 100mil to round off numbers. And let's say a share dividend in the order of 1 share for every 10 owned took place. One would guess that at the end of set date, maybe 30% of the float would be owned, so lets say 30mil or so. Let's also say that a 1cent dividend was given for every 100 shares.
If someone owned 2mil, they'd receive $20k cash and 200k shares.
If 30mil was gone, SFNN would pay out about $300k in cash and 3mil in shares. If 40% of float gone, the same.
I'm not here to given any credence to what I've written, but only to show it's possible to have both given a reasonable cash on hand payout.
Some might say more of the float would be gone in days, but yet few would truly stick around, and day trade this for a while. We may trade 70% of the float in the first day, 40% the second, and 20% the third. But it would taper off, and few would be left at the close. I seriosly doubt that if 15 days were given, we'd be anything above say 40% of the float gone. I have no idea how it might happen, but to suggest more cash isn't reasonable, and to suggest more shares doesn't seem reasonable either. I don't think we'd have anywhere near 50% of the float gone.
Any thoughts while we are now speculating thanks to a few here including MB?
I'm talking to JB tomorrow, so any impute or questions I'll try and get these answered. And yes, I know about the PGNF thingy so don't repeat that.
I'm just curious to know others thoughts on what could transpire and be reasonable in both cash and stock.
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