Monday, October 07, 2019 4:50:53 PM
The way I used it was to mean that the NYSE would delist FnF's stocks without the companies' (FHFA's) consent. Maybe "forcibly" would have been a better term. For someone who has, in the past, chosen to define words in a non-traditional way, I would have expected you to glean that from the context rather than insisting on a definition from a dictionary.
Did you mean 6/15/2010?
Yes, this is a more clear way of asking the question. The 13 months comment I made was not, as you correctly point out, entirely appropriate due to the rise in the common share price above $1 in the meantime. There is still an oddity here, though ultimately irrelevant due to DeMarco's later voluntary delisting.
This has my vote for the most likely explanation, though it is still possible that the NYSE would have taken action on its own shortly thereafter.
Does a company have to delist all of its shares (common and preferred) if any one of them does not meet the various share price requirements?
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