Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[mrfence]

This type of question always comes up during shareholder suits especially because dates are stated when filing the suits leading some to believe they must have owned prior to the date and continue to own after the date to be included. BUT, when remedies are applied in favor of shareholders it's usually across the board to current shareholders as rights are passed with the sale of the shares. Sort of like a dividend date. There may be historical exceptions. This is just my general understanding.