I take it you are not convinced by the company's claim that Provenge works through the CD54 upregulation. I get the impression there isn't enough published data to determine whether this is the mechanism with which it works. What would the company need to do to prove this is a causal relationship?
I also know the FDA has approved a whole class of drugs, the SSRI's and related neurochemical compounds that appear to work, yet nobody knows for sure why or how they work. What is your sense that the FDA will error on the side of approving the drug in case it has some efficacy, even if we are not sure why?
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